As I wrote before, both Old and New Testaments hold to the divine mandate of marriage between one man and one woman. But some people are now claiming that the Bible writers were addressing pederasty. These people assert that the verses condemning homosexuality were really referring to heterosexual men sodomizing boys. Is that what the apostles of Christ really meant by what they wrote?
I've pointed out before that there is no such thing as a homosexual orientation. It's a behaviour like any other sin. If it truly is permanent as activists claim, why then do people change back to being heterosexual?Even the Bible says that people with same-sex attractions can be redeemed. Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 6:11 (KJV) that, "And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God." If some homosexuals claim to also be Christians, this verse proves that notion to be false.
We know of course that born-again believers don't practice sin. As John wrote in 1 John 6 and 7 (BBE) "If we say we are joined to him, and are walking still in the dark, our words are false and our acts are untrue: But if we are walking in the light, as he is in the light, we are all united with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son makes us clean from all sin."
Additionally, what about what Paul wrote in Romans chapter one regarding women engaged in unnatural practices with other women? Pederasty was only practiced by men back in the first century. Paul obviously meant sodomy and lesbian sin.
I'll be writing more on how sin and righteousness in believers are incompatible as part of my next book called You Think You're Going to Heaven? People delude themselves by thinking that God will overlook their favourite sins. They'll learn too late that he won't excuse any rebellion against him.
heterosexual? Exodus International alone shows the way former "gay" people are transformed by the power of Christ to accept what their biology says they always were.